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Biblical Ponderings
To the woman [God] said, “...Your desire shall be for your husband, And he shall rule over you.”
~Genesis 3:16b, NKJV
In the later years of my identification as an evangelical Christian, I understood this account of God's word to Eve after Adam and she sinned to be a warning: God was warning Eve that because they were no longer sinless, men would oppress women, rather than women and men living and ruling the earth (not each other) as complete equals as Eve and Adam had done up to that point (Genesis 1:27-30). But it was only this afternoon that I realized God made no mention to Adam of a backlash against men because of the way they had oppressed women. It couldn't be because God (as the writer of this account knew God) did not know; according to the Bible, God knows everything. So was that part of God's word left out by the writers (or later editors), who were products of their misogynistic culture? Or, perhaps, did God not say anything to Adam about the inevitable backlash, because he knew Adam's sinful state would not allow him to hear and understand the danger of giving in to that sinful desire to rule over women?
Discuss.
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They're useful as a textual representation of several thousand years of conversations between the Divine and the Jewish people, but they should be the beginning of discussion, not the end of it.
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I completely agree. It doesn't make sense for us, in a different time and place, to try to blindly apply what was unique to one culture and time in history to our own culture and time in history.
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Unless you're blind, of course. In which case, you know braille already, I hope.
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